In 1Corinthians 15:1-5, Paul presents what he considers to be matters of "first importance" in regard to the gospel he preached. Namely, "that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures, and that he appeared to Cephas [Peter], then to the twelve." But what does "Christ died for our sins" mean?In "Christian Theology: An Introduction," Alister McGrath writes:
The New Testament, drawing on Old Testament imagery and expectations, presents Christ's death upon the cross as a sacrifice. This approach, which is especially associated with the Letter to the Hebrews, presents Christ's sacrificial offering as an effective and perfect sacrifice, which was to accomplish that which the sacrifices of the Old Testament were only able to intimate, rather than achieve. In particular, Paul's use of the Greek term hilasterion (Ro.3:25) points to a sacrificial interpretation of Christ's death. The idea is developed subsequently within the Christian tradition.McGrath goes on to quote from Augustine and Athanasius. In fact, the crucifixion of Christ understood as an atoning sacrifice for our sins has always been the unquestioned doctrine and proud boast of orthodox Christianity. It has always been vital and precious to the Christian's faith and assurance. Charles Wesley's famous words are wonderfully representative: Arise my soul, arise! Shake off your guilty fears. The bleeding sacrifice on my behalf appears! Before the throne my surety stands, my name is written on his hands!
And this glorious understanding of the cross went relatively unchallenged in the history of Christendom until roughly around the 18th century, in the wake of the so-called Enlightenment. To quote McGrath again,
Since the Enlightment, however, there has been a subtle shift in the meaning of the term. A metaphorical extension of meaning has come to be given over the original. Whereas the term originally referred to the ritual offering of slaughtered animals as a specifically religious action, it increasingly came to mean heroic or costly action on the part of individuals, especially giving up of one's life, with no trasncendent reference or expectation.The term as applied to Jesus' cross, in other words, became a slippery one. But again we should note such ambiguity was not present in the New Testament usage. For Paul, Jesus' death was undoubtedly understood in terms of a "sin offering" (e.g., Ro.8:3; 2Co.5:21; Eph.5:2; cf. 1Co.5:7), in accordance with the sacrificial cultus of the Jewish Scriptures. At essence, it was atonement for sin through bloodshed. G.E. Ladd, in A Theology of the New Testament, writes,
The sacrificial aspect of Christ's death is seen in the frequent references to his blood. God has made Christ to be the propitiation by his blood (Ro.3:25); we are justifed by his blood (Eph.1:7); we are made near to God by the blood of Christ (Eph.2:13); we have peace through the blood of his cross (Col.1:20).Along thise lines, the author of Hebrews writes unambiguously, "without the shedding of blood, there is no forgivness of sins," (He.9:22).
A moment's reflection suggests that such references are not primarily concerned with the physical blood of Jesus, for, as a matter of fact, Jesus shed very little of his material blood [nevermind Mel Gibson's portrayal]. The idea of shed blood refers to the slaughter of the sacrificial lamb, whose throat was cut and whose blood gushed forth. Nothing like this happened to Jesus. The blood and water (Jn.19:34) that came from Jesus' side did so after he had expired. In the New Testament [and Old, see L. Morris, The Atonement, 1983, p.52], blood means life violently taken away, life offered in sacrifice.
But not only did Christ's death framed as "sacrifice" become somewhat ambiguous, but its historic understanding became more and more culturally distatesful. Early 20th century liberal theologian and pastor Harry Emerson Fosdick famously called the doctrine of blood atonement "a slaughterhouse religion," a sort of "precivilized barbarity."
Let's be honest, bloody sacrifices are far removed from the antiseptic world of the modern West (and 21st century suburban America in particular). Isn't the demand for "blood" and "propitiation" a violent and crude concept? It smacks of primitive superstition and savagery. It strikes us as 'beneath' any thoughtful and reflective conception of God.
Presenting the historic 'theory' of the atonement, British "emergent" theologian and author, Alan Jones, writes: "Jesus' sacrifice was to appease an angry God. Penal substitution was the name of this vile doctrine." On the other side of the pond, Brian McLaren has said, in mocking the traditional understanding of atonement and divine justice in justification,
God is incapable of forgiving. God can’t forgive unless He punishes somebody in place of the person He was going to forgive. God doesn’t say things to you—Forgive your wife, and then go kick the dog to vent your anger. God asks you to actually forgive…. And there’s a certain sense that, a common understanding of the atonement presents a God who is incapable of forgiving. Unless He kicks somebody else."Similarly, there have been numerous theologians in recent decades, particularly from the "peace church" (i.e., anabaptistic) traditions, arguing for a "nonviolent" interpretation of the cross. The notion of "divine violence" in demanding (or worse, inflicting) a blood sacrifice is condemned as destructive both morally and theologically, as ultimately undermining the whole project of God's peaceful kingdom. In Jesus, God suffers violence, it is argued, but He does not inflict it!
As many within this tradition have stated - in opposition to the historical understanding of the cross as a scandalous display of not only God's mercy but justice as well - violence only begets violence. Indeed! In particular, human violence begets divine violence (cf. Rev.11:18). But the process is not unending. When God acts, it is with finality. Human, sinful violence is answered once and for all by divine, retributive violence. Eye for an eye, tooth for a tooth, life for life - "the soul that sins shall surely die," (Ez.18:20; Ro.6:23; cf. Ge.2:17). Ghandi said, "an eye for an eye makes the whole world blind." God's justice leaves the whole world condemned to die. And of course, this is precisely the biblical picture of our desperate and tragic situation: "in Adam, all die," (1Co.15:22a), for "sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned," (Ro.5:12). But the hope offered in the gospel is life beyond the grave: "in Christ, all will be made alive," (1Co.15:22b; cf. Jn.11:25).
The critical presupposition, then, behind the biblical doctrine of atonement is the lethal (physically and spiritually speaking, cf. Rev.20:12-14) retribution demanded by divine justice, or what Scripture often refers to as God's wrath. Where this is rejected, the orthodox doctrine of the cross of Christ cannot be sustained. Without it, the severity revealed at Golgotha of both God's indignation and love, it would seem, are hopelessly obscured.
5 comments:
Here's the rub, James:
The verse from Revelation on which you hang the back half of your argument--the Answer, so to speak--seems to describe God's judgment of the dead, not his judgment of the living. The same could go for the verses from Corinthians regarding Adam: the point is that through Adam's sin, our eternal fellowship with God was lost. As a result, God's justice (which you treat as synonymous with physical death) comes against man because to allow sin into His presence would compromise His Holiness. In short, we are made incompatible with God through Adam and through sin, and as a result, we are eternally separated from Him.
But why does this have to be tied to expressly physical death? As the verse from Revelation suggests, God "destroys those who destroy the Earth" on the day of Final Judgment, not on the day they die; this seem to me to be an important distinction which points to death as a less important--if important at all--avenue for "judgment." To me, this is the question that needs to be answered: If Scripture seems to point over and over again to the fleeting nature of life on this earth, and Scripture also suggests that physical death should NOT be read UNIFORMLY as an expression of God's wrath or judgment (it is, in the cases of the martyrs, a witness; it is, more often than not, just what happens when you get old), then what makes Christ's political and violent death on the cross THE salvorific move? It seems, to me, that the death scripture is most concerned with--that of the "soul;" the death that means eternal separation from God and destruction on the day of the Last Judgment--is defeated not because a perfect God-Man bled on the altar of the cross, but because Christ rose from the grave. By being resurrected, Christ broke the power of physical death to bind us in our sin until the day of Last Judgment.
To me, this distinction seems important, as it suggests that Christ's sacrifice on the cross was not an example of God "kicking the dog," but God through Christ turning mortality--which entered the world through Adam's sin--into the very avenue of redeeming us from the only death that matters: spiritual death. So Christ DID have to die, and to fulfill scripture, he had to die in exactly the way he did...but the point, perhaps, wasn't THAT death, which took the form of the symbolic blood sacrifices of Leviticus, but THAT death's DEFEAT, symbolically and eternally, in the Resurrection.
I know my ideas are a bit muddy in there, and I'm of course being bold in order to make a point, not to be heretical...but I think some of these points are worth truly engaging, and not resorting to the classical retreat of saying "well, that's not what SCRIPTURE says" (which is what I was afraid we were doing on Monday night, at least at first)...because we both know that what we think of as "what SCRIPTURE says" is often affected by the history of scriptural interpretations in the church (which have often been expressly politically motivated...in other words, I'm referring to "tradition"), as well as being affected by things like, well, Dante. So, I would ask that we use this talkback to ACTUALLY LOOK at what Scripture says, not what we often hear other people SAYING Scripture says.
That's not a critique of the post--I think you do a fantastic job of this, James--but an invitation for sincere discussion.
So, rambling aside, here's the takeaway point I'm trying to make:
The Bible seems, to me, to distinguish between the physical death we experience on this planet and our eternal "death," be that our separation from God or the lake of Fire, etc. If, then, we grant this distinction, I think we have cause to think about what God means when He says "the wages of sin are death"...and consequently, what Christ's "death for us" on the Cross means. Is this always about the beating of our hearts? And does stopping our hearts from beating amount to divine Justice?
Humbly submitted,
Kenny
Regarding God's wrath:
I think what's hard for many of us (or maybe just me) to understand/remember is that God's wrath is inextricably tied to His divine justice and is not arbitrary or chaotic. The Wrath of God is NOT God losing His temper and lashing out at humanity in a fit of uncontrolled rage. God's patience is so great that He is willing to withhold judgment and wrath and offer us a chance to repent. His grace and mercy culminated in the sacrifice of His Son, giving us the opportunity to turn away His divinely just and deserved wrath.
But the other extreme -- "God so loved the world that He was willing to pretend that they never sinned" -- implying that the deliberate God-ordained sacrifice of Christ would have been God kicking the dog, so to speak, effectively neuters the Gospel. If God was willing and able to forgive sin without payment, what do I have to thank Him for? For arbitrarily forgiving me? If he didn't pay the price, what do I owe him? If there's no bad news, how is the Gospel "good news"?
Obviously my comment was a response to the original post and not to Kenny's response. :-)
Excellent points, Josh, truly.
But I still think we need to address the distinction I'm trying to get at between physical, mortal suffering and eternal separation from (or annihilation by) God. That is to say, death and Death. To which does God's wrath apply? To both? I know the gut-reflex answer to that is "both," but let's think it out: does inflicting momentary suffering (we are here but for a blink of any eye...) really accomplish anything? Think about actual examples in our own lives: we can all probably think of a time when we endured something unpleasant that God ultimately turned to good--an event or circumstance that, at the time, seemed cruel, but which we later found to be instructional and beneficial. I think it's tempting in that situation to say God "disciplined" us, and I'm fine with that. In fact, I believe it. But is "discipline" the same as "wrath"? Is it a lighter shade of it? I hesitate to say so because there is no evidence that human suffering is laid out in a "just" way...none of us believe that, not completely. Of course, suffering/death ARE just in the sense that they are the result of Sin entering into the world and cutting off our eternal communion with God...but are the individual moments of pain fairly distributed in this world? In any way? What about in the border-areas of this world, like the womb? Consider pregnancies terminated or lost in the first few weeks...consider abortions...are these deaths divine retribution for sin?
Or is it possible that God's "wrath" is designed not for this world but for our eternal souls (to be separated, then, from God's discipline)? Are they both manifestations of Justice? I tend to think so...
...Again, I know these are bold words, and I'm not even sure that I believe them in the depths of my heart--they are just thoughts designed to push us to answer some of our questions about Justice and Wrath (and the character of God)...so please don't consider them as "wrong" and leave it at that--if these ideas strike you as incongruous with the Gospel, let's find WHERE they are incongruous and root it out...thereby deepening our faithful understanding of Scripture.
I guess that's another way of saying I'm "playing Devil's advocate."
Anyway, more food for thought?
Kenny,
In reference to the question of the meaning of death, there is a sense in which it signifies a spiritual separation from God. We see this usage of "death" in Rev.20, where it is said that the righteous will be resurrected into eternal life, and remain untouched by "the second death," (Rev.20:6; 2:11), which is defined as "the lake of fire" (Rev.20:14; 21:8). Notice that "second" here qualifies death as indicating something subsequent to a “first” death (i.e., physical death –something which the saints evidently suffer).
But in 1Cor.15, the meaning of "in Adam all die," is clearly physical death (it includes everyone, those in Christ and those outside of Him), as the whole context concerns resurrection ‘in the graveyard’. Likewise, the argument from Rom.5:12ff., "death" means...well, death. Paul is addressing the matter of how it is that everyone dies, though not everyone has sinned by transgressing a commandment as Adam did, or as the Israelites did after the giving of the Law. Why does everyone die? Because in Adam, all sin. Death is the penalty of sin, from Genesis 2:17 through Revelation 20:14 (when death itself is finally abolished, cf. 1Cor.15:26, 54-56, and the curse is finally removed, Rev.22:3). And of course we see physical death throughout Scripture as God's act of judgment against sin. Christians do not circumvent physical death (for in Adam, we all die), but are saved through it (following Christ's pattern of resurrection glory through death). Hence the reference in Jn.11:25, "if anyone believes in me, he will live even though he dies."
So "death" in Scripture is always tied expressly to physical death. Our redemption frees us, not from the trauma of facing death, but from its permanency. In this way, we are freed from "the second death," as we attain immortality through our mortality, as "the perishable puts on the imperishable" at the resurrection of the righteous dead. Though we die “in Adam,” we will live “in Christ.”
So, when God threatened death to Adam and Eve, it entailed both the first death and the second - both mortality and eternal separation, predicated upon a spiritual separation that happened immediately following their sin. Jesus saves us from death, as comprehended in its fullest signficance as divine judgment, in which God "destroys both the soul and the body," (Mt.10:28; cf. Rev.20:12-15), by restoring us spiritually to God.
So death entails a present spiritual death (Eph.2:1ff.), from which we’re saved through regeneration, physical death (through which we come into God’s presence immediately, and ultimately to resurrection glory), and eternal punishment in hell.
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